Daily Current Affairs Quiz- 20th February 2024
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The Daily Current Affairs Quiz questions are based on various national and regional newspapers, including government news sources.
The questions are framed on happenings around you to enhance your competitiveness for news based concepts and facts.
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Question 1 of 5
1. Question
With reference to the Dual-member constituencies, consider the following statements:
1. It was introduced to reserve seats with sizeable SC and ST populations.
2. They were introduced by the Government of India Act, 1935.
3. It was discarded through the Two-Member Constituencies (Abolition) Act 1961.
How many of the statements given above are correct?Correct
(b) Only two
Dual-member constituencies were introduced by the Delimitation Commission Act, of 1952. (Statement 2 is incorrect). It was introduced to reserve seats with sizeable SC and ST populations. (Statement 1 is correct)
Seats with more than half the population belonging to SCs or STs were single-member constituencies.
However, after the first two Lok Sabha elections, in 1952 and 1957, the system was discarded through the Two-Member Constituencies (Abolition) Act, 1961. (Statement 3 is correct)
There were 86 two-member seats in the 1952 Lok Sabha elections. Uttar Pradesh had the most, with 17 seats out of a total of 69, while Madhya Pradesh and the former Vindhya Pradesh had the largest percentage, with 50%. West Bengal had the sole three-member seat, with one MP from the general, one from the SC, and one from the ST categories. There were 91 two-member seats in 1957, with UP having the most (18) and Odisha having the largest proportion (50%). In 1951, there were 579 two-member Assembly seats (and one three-member seat in the former Bombay state) and 551 in 1957.
Dual-membership faced major criticism after the 1957 election as 20 such constituencies saw winners from the same group, either SC or ST, and did not elect a general candidate.Incorrect
(b) Only two
Dual-member constituencies were introduced by the Delimitation Commission Act, of 1952. (Statement 2 is incorrect). It was introduced to reserve seats with sizeable SC and ST populations. (Statement 1 is correct)
Seats with more than half the population belonging to SCs or STs were single-member constituencies.
However, after the first two Lok Sabha elections, in 1952 and 1957, the system was discarded through the Two-Member Constituencies (Abolition) Act, 1961. (Statement 3 is correct)
There were 86 two-member seats in the 1952 Lok Sabha elections. Uttar Pradesh had the most, with 17 seats out of a total of 69, while Madhya Pradesh and the former Vindhya Pradesh had the largest percentage, with 50%. West Bengal had the sole three-member seat, with one MP from the general, one from the SC, and one from the ST categories. There were 91 two-member seats in 1957, with UP having the most (18) and Odisha having the largest proportion (50%). In 1951, there were 579 two-member Assembly seats (and one three-member seat in the former Bombay state) and 551 in 1957.
Dual-membership faced major criticism after the 1957 election as 20 such constituencies saw winners from the same group, either SC or ST, and did not elect a general candidate. -
Question 2 of 5
2. Question
YANKTI KUTI VALLEY, sometimes seen in the news, is located in which state?
Correct
(a) Uttarakhand
Multiple events of glacial advances have been witnessed from the Yankti Kuti valley situated in the extreme eastern part of Pithoragarh district, Uttarakhand, for 52 thousand years (MIS 3) synchronises with climate variability, according to a new study.
This valley is mainly dominated by Byansis, one of the four Bhotiya communities of Kumaon, with the others being Johar, Darmiya and Chaudansi. It is the last valley before the border with Tibet and is formed by the river Kuti Yankti, which is one of the headwaters of the Kali River that forms the boundary between India and Nepal in this region. It is located in a transitional zone between the Indian Summer Monsoon and the mid-latitude westerlies.Incorrect
(a) Uttarakhand
Multiple events of glacial advances have been witnessed from the Yankti Kuti valley situated in the extreme eastern part of Pithoragarh district, Uttarakhand, for 52 thousand years (MIS 3) synchronises with climate variability, according to a new study.
This valley is mainly dominated by Byansis, one of the four Bhotiya communities of Kumaon, with the others being Johar, Darmiya and Chaudansi. It is the last valley before the border with Tibet and is formed by the river Kuti Yankti, which is one of the headwaters of the Kali River that forms the boundary between India and Nepal in this region. It is located in a transitional zone between the Indian Summer Monsoon and the mid-latitude westerlies. -
Question 3 of 5
3. Question
“Amolops siju” sometimes seen in news is a
Correct
(c) A new species of frog
Amolops siju is a new species of frog discovered in the Suji cave in Meghalaya, India in 2023. The ZSI team named the frog after the cave where it was found. It’s the second cave-dwelling frog species to be discovered in India, after Micrixalus spelunca in Tamil Nadu.
Siju Cave, also known as Bat Cave, is a limestone cave in Meghalaya, near the Napak Lake and Simsang River game reserve. It’s known for its stalagmites and stalactites.Incorrect
(c) A new species of frog
Amolops siju is a new species of frog discovered in the Suji cave in Meghalaya, India in 2023. The ZSI team named the frog after the cave where it was found. It’s the second cave-dwelling frog species to be discovered in India, after Micrixalus spelunca in Tamil Nadu.
Siju Cave, also known as Bat Cave, is a limestone cave in Meghalaya, near the Napak Lake and Simsang River game reserve. It’s known for its stalagmites and stalactites. -
Question 4 of 5
4. Question
Consider the following statements:
1. Bailable offences are those for which the accused person has a right to be released on bail.
2. In the case of bailable offenses, the police cannot arrest the accused person and detain them in custody.
3. Non-bailable offenses are those for which the accused person is not entitled to be released on bail as a matter of right.
How many of the statements is/are correct?Correct
(b) Only two
Bailable offences are those for which the accused person has a right to be released on bail. This means that the accused person can be released from police custody or jail by posting a bail bond or surety.
The amount of bail is usually determined by the court based on the nature of the offence, the severity of the punishment, and the accused person’s criminal record, among other factors.
Some examples of bailable offences in India include minor traffic violations, simple assault, and certain types of property offenses.
Non-bailable offenses are those for which the accused person is not entitled to be released on bail as a matter of right. Instead, the accused person must apply to the court for bail and convince the court that they deserve to be released pending trial.
The court will consider factors such as the nature and seriousness of the offense, the likelihood of the accused person fleeing or tampering with evidence, and the accused person’s criminal history when deciding whether to grant bail.
Some examples of non-bailable offenses in India include murder, rape, kidnapping, and certain types of economic offenses.
It is important to note that even in the case of bailable offenses, the police can arrest the accused person and detain them in custody for a limited period of time, usually up to 24 hours, before releasing them on bail. (Statement 2 is incorrect)
Additionally, bail can be revoked if the accused person violates any of the conditions of their release or fails to appear in court when required.
Non-bailable offenses are those for which the accused person is not entitled to be released on bail as a matter of right. Instead, the accused person must apply to the court for bail and convince the court that they deserve to be released pending trial.Incorrect
(b) Only two
Bailable offences are those for which the accused person has a right to be released on bail. This means that the accused person can be released from police custody or jail by posting a bail bond or surety.
The amount of bail is usually determined by the court based on the nature of the offence, the severity of the punishment, and the accused person’s criminal record, among other factors.
Some examples of bailable offences in India include minor traffic violations, simple assault, and certain types of property offenses.
Non-bailable offenses are those for which the accused person is not entitled to be released on bail as a matter of right. Instead, the accused person must apply to the court for bail and convince the court that they deserve to be released pending trial.
The court will consider factors such as the nature and seriousness of the offense, the likelihood of the accused person fleeing or tampering with evidence, and the accused person’s criminal history when deciding whether to grant bail.
Some examples of non-bailable offenses in India include murder, rape, kidnapping, and certain types of economic offenses.
It is important to note that even in the case of bailable offenses, the police can arrest the accused person and detain them in custody for a limited period of time, usually up to 24 hours, before releasing them on bail. (Statement 2 is incorrect)
Additionally, bail can be revoked if the accused person violates any of the conditions of their release or fails to appear in court when required.
Non-bailable offenses are those for which the accused person is not entitled to be released on bail as a matter of right. Instead, the accused person must apply to the court for bail and convince the court that they deserve to be released pending trial. -
Question 5 of 5
5. Question
Regarding anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements:
1. The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party within six months of being appointed to the House.
2. The law does not provide any time frame within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection case.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
(b) Only 2
Anti-defection law
The Tenth Schedule contains the following provisions with respect to the disqualification of members of Parliament and the state legislatures on the ground of defection.
A nominated member of a House becomes disqualified for being a member of the House if he joins any political party after the expiry of six months from the date on which he takes his seat in the House. This means that he may join any political party within six months of taking his seat in the House without inviting this disqualification. (Statement 1 is incorrect)
Any question regarding disqualification arising out of defection is to be decided by the presiding officer of the House.
According to the law, the Presiding Officers have no time limit in which to deliberate on a plea for disqualification. The courts can also only intervene after the officer has made a decision, therefore the petitioner’s only choice is to wait until the officer has reached a decision. (Statement 2 is correct)Incorrect
(b) Only 2
Anti-defection law
The Tenth Schedule contains the following provisions with respect to the disqualification of members of Parliament and the state legislatures on the ground of defection.
A nominated member of a House becomes disqualified for being a member of the House if he joins any political party after the expiry of six months from the date on which he takes his seat in the House. This means that he may join any political party within six months of taking his seat in the House without inviting this disqualification. (Statement 1 is incorrect)
Any question regarding disqualification arising out of defection is to be decided by the presiding officer of the House.
According to the law, the Presiding Officers have no time limit in which to deliberate on a plea for disqualification. The courts can also only intervene after the officer has made a decision, therefore the petitioner’s only choice is to wait until the officer has reached a decision. (Statement 2 is correct)