(c) Only three

Explanation:
• Contempt of court is an act of disrespect or disobedience towards a court of law or its officers. It can be a direct act, such as interrupting a court proceeding or refusing to obey a court order. It can also be an indirect act, such as publishing false or misleading information about a court case.
• A committee was set up in 1961 under the chairmanship of the late H N Sanyal, the then additional solicitor general. The committee made a comprehensive examination of the law and problems relating to contempt of court in the light of the position obtained in our own country and various foreign countries. Pursuant to the recommendations made by the H N Sanyal Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed. (Statement 1 is correct)
• The Supreme Court and the High Courts of India have been empowered with the power to penalize for Contempt of Court under Articles 129 and 215 of the Constitution of India. (Statement 2 is correct)
• The Constitution of India does not define Civil Contempt and/or Criminal Contempt. (Statement 3 is incorrect)
• Article 142 (2) of the Indian Constitution clearly states that “subject to the provisions of any law made on this behalf by Parliament” the Supreme Court shall have all and every power to make any order on the punishment of any contempt of itself. Thus, the parliament is vested with powers to make laws on Contempt of Court. (Statement 4 is correct)

(b) Only 2

Explanation:
• An advocate is a professional in the field of law. Only advocates are recognized to practice law in any court or before any authority or person. A government servant can be admitted as an advocate if their duties require it. However, if a government servant is enrolled as an advocate while in service, they can only represent the department and not any other person.
• Corporate Lawyers, as well as patent attorneys, are too recognized as lawyers and there’s no prohibition on their recognition as lawyers. (Statement 1 is incorrect)
• The Bar Council of India (BCI) is a statutory body that regulates and represents the Indian bar. It was established by Parliament in 1961 under the Advocates Act. The BCI’s members are elected from India’s lawyers.
• The Bar Council of India visits and inspects Universities/Law colleges in the country as part of its statutory function of promoting legal education and laying down standards in consultation with the Universities in India and the State Bar Councils. (Statement 2 is correct)
• On March 15, 2023, the BCI allowed foreign lawyers and law firms to practice foreign law in India. Foreign law firms can now advise clients in India on international legal issues and foreign law.

Explanation:
• Arbitration: Parties voluntarily agree to have their dispute settled by an impartial arbitrator, whose decision is binding. (Statement 1 is incorrect)
• Arbitration: Use an impartial individual to assist disputing parties in resolving or narrowing the issues between them. They can be used for both personal and commercial tensions.
• Generally, there is no right to appeal an arbitrator’s decision. Except for some interim measures, there is very little scope for judicial intervention in the arbitration process.
• Mediation: In mediation, an impartial person called a “mediator” helps the parties try to reach a mutually acceptable resolution of the dispute (Can be used for both personal and commercial tensions) It’s typically used to resolve disputes in areas such as family law, employment law, and civil litigation. It can also be used in other areas such as business, real estate, and community conflicts.
• The mediator does not decide the dispute but helps the parties communicate so they can try to settle the dispute themselves. (Statement 2 is incorrect)
• Any person who undergoes the required 40 hours training stipulated by the Mediation and Conciliation Project Committee of the Supreme Court (SC) can be a mediator.
• He also needs to have at least ten mediations resulting in a settlement and at least 20 mediations in all to be eligible to be accredited as a qualified mediator.
• Conciliation: Similar to mediation, but the conciliator may also suggest solutions, though they are not binding. (Statement 3 is incorrect) (Can be used for both personal and commercial tensions)
• Conciliation is a non-binding procedure that helps parties in a dispute reach a mutually satisfactory settlement. The parties are free to accept or reject the conciliator’s recommendations. However, if both parties accept the settlement document drawn by the conciliator, it shall be final and binding on both.
• Negotiation: A non-binding procedure in which discussions between the parties are initiated without the intervention of any third party with the object of arriving at a negotiated settlement to the dispute. It is the most common method of alternative dispute resolution.
• Negotiation occurs in business, non-profit organizations, government branches, legal proceedings, among nations and in personal situations such as marriage, divorce, parenting, and everyday life.

Explanation:

• Article 143 of the Indian Constitution empowers the President to seek the advisory opinion of the Supreme Court on matters of public importance. This provision grants the apex court advisory jurisdiction, distinct from its regular judicial function.
• Who can invoke it: Only the President has the power to refer questions to the Supreme Court under this article.
• What can be referred: Two categories of questions can be referred:
• Questions of law or fact of public importance: This covers a wide range of issues, including interpretation of laws, constitutional validity of legislation, and matters with significant societal impact.
• Disputes arising out of pre-constitutional treaties, agreements, etc.: This dotyczy (deals with this) interpretation of agreements made before the Constitution came into effect.
• Nature of the opinion: The Supreme Court’s opinion is advisory and not binding on the President. He may choose to accept, reject, or partially implement the advice.
• Obligation to respond: The Supreme Court is not obligated to respond to every reference. It has the discretion to accept or refuse to entertain a question.
• Article 143 of the Constitution confers Advisory Jurisdiction to the Supreme Court of India. This provision finds its origin in Section 213 of the Government of India Act, 1935, which conferred upon the Governor-General the discretion to pose questions of public importance to the Federal Court.
• To date, this mechanism has been put to use only twelve times. The President has used this system under Article 143 around 12 times in almost 60 years.

(b) Only two

Explanation:
• The Doctrine of Pith and Substance is a crucial principle in Indian federalism that helps determine the validity of legislation enacted by the Union and State legislatures.
• The doctrine emphasizes that the true nature (pith) and main purpose (substance) of a legislation, rather than its incidental effects, determines its validity.
• It ensures that the Union and State legislatures respect their respective spheres as outlined in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution, which distributes legislative powers between them.
• Doctrine of Pith and Substance in Interpretation of Statutes
• The origin of this doctrine lies in Canada through the case named Cushing vs Dupuy case, an important ruling that laid the groundwork for ancillary and incidental encroachment, is where the Doctrine of Pith and Substance emerged. It then slowly spread to India and is firmly supported by Article 246 and the Seventh Schedule (the Indian Constitution divides the scope of legislative authority between the Center and states through the Seventh Schedule). This schedule includes the Indian Constitution‘s Union, State, and Concurrent Lists. This doctrine has been used as the foundation for numerous Supreme Court rulings. (Statement 3 is incorrect)
• When a law passed by one legislature is contested or violated by another legislature, the Doctrine of Pith and Substance is used